nlloyd
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I have a divorce from 1836 where my 3x great grandmother claimed her husband 'deserted her with 6 children, was cruel, intemperate and tried to suffocate her with brimstone in the bedroom'.
Interesting. Is this in the US? In the UK at this time women could only divorce their husbands if they committed adultery AND deserted them, treated them cruelly, or committed rape, sodomy, incest or bigamy. Men could divorce their wives simply for committing adultery. So if this was in the UK (including Ireland at that time), it would explain her access to divorce. There were other inequities also. Men could sue for damages against a third party (another male) if their wives were unfaithful, women could not. Divorce was rare because it was an expensive procedure requiring a Private Act of Parliament; only the very wealthy had access to it. After the Divorce and Matrimonial Causes Act of 1857 Britons no longer needed to go through Parliament in order to get a divorce, and divorce became more accessible, but many of the gender inequities remained in place. I wonder how the legal situation in the US compared to this if she was US-based?